If a person purposely went around and had sex with people for the purpose of giving them syphilis, yeah that is a reasonable basis for saying a crime has been committed. Same for Gonorrhea or any other disease. I think the same would be true for a lab technician who was doing it with a needle.

pregnancy scenario you are mentioning is slightly different because it doesn't involve doing physical harm to the victim. I could definitely see it as a basis for a tort if I can prove that you intentionally made representations about birth control (or poked holes in my condom) andt at the same time the victim can prove that the person's real intent was to get pregnant.

the married example is like the pregnancy example but is even but even harder to justify a criminal act or even a tort because what are the damages?

You really don't believe a person has a moral obligation to tell a sex partner that they are married?

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