>that if he over-inflates the balls, and the refs just happen
>not to catch it, HOW IS THAT NOT STILL FUCKING CHEATING?! The
>rule says it's supposed to be X PSI. Rodgers has his balls at
>Y PSI. The refs miss it.

Did this happen? And if it did, it would be against the spirit of the rules BUT not illegal. Which is a distinction that cannot possibly be lost on a Pats fan.

>
>HOW IN THE HOLY FUCK IS THAT NOT CHEATING?!?!?!?!

Because the rulebook says that is fine.

>
>The refs didn't catch the Pats until halftime. THE PATS WERE
>STILL CHEATING BEFORE HALFTIME.

If you mess with the balls after referee inspection, you cheated. Those are the rules. Sorry they are not some other rules that you clearly wish existed.

>
>And what's funny about all this is that they actually
>dominated the Colts EVEN FURTHER once the tampering was found
>and dealt with.

Outcome of the game is irrelevant.

>
>But anyway ----- cheating is cheating whether or not you get
>caught. So no, the ARod argument was ABSOLUTELY NOT proven
>wrong. You guys just refuse to acknowledge that cheating is
>cheating, whether or not you get caught. And this type of shit
>happens ALL THE TIME.

Is it against the rules to overinflate the balls prior to referee inspection?

Is it?