>Response: Again, the expressin *MY GOD* is swearing and
>taking the Lord's name in vein, he would not make that
>exclamation in front of his rabbi, especially in light of
>the ten commandements. You shall not take the Lord's name
>in vein.

its not swearing. the name shal not be taken 'in vain.' if one is amazed by the works or words of God or a Prophet, esp if it is something beyond belief, it is common in semetic history and culture to excalim "My God!" to both signify belief in God or a Prophet, and to show belief in the work.

>>so if its meant to be a lesson for the public, to show them
>>to worship the Almighty God, why does Jesus still pray to
>>God in private?
>
>Response: You are assuming that Jesus prays in the same way
>that you and I pray, for his prayers are communion and
>communication for what he must do as a human

DOES it matter how he prays? why would 'God' need to pray? prayer AND communication involve TWO.

>especially
>since only pagans pray in public in order to be seen. ( Matt
>6:5)

this is contextually irrelevent here.

> why is there seperation between his will and
>>God's Will? and indeed this is in private, not for the rest.
>>even the apostles stand back and away at this moment...
>
>Response: There is no seperation of wills here, for the Son
>then says, not my will but yours.

My will and Your will. sounds like a seperation to me.

>The Son being human does
>not want to suffer wrath ask the Father if it is *possible*
>, he does not go outside of the will of his Father. And
>that is a resonable question to ask.

Sounds like a Prophet and human servant of God looking and asking God for help and guidance...

>Response: But God says that he does not share his glory with
>another.

i dont get these mental gymnastics. it is easier to multiply Godhood, than to understand who glory is ascribed to? The glory of God is not the same as the Glory of god's Creations, and of God miracles and wonders, and of God's prophets.

>Isaiah 42:8
>"I am the LORD, that is My name;
>I will not give My glory to another,
>Nor My praise to graven images.

MY glory. the Glory that is DUE to God. it doesnt mean that NO ONE ELSE SHALL HAVE GLORY. but you dont ascribe the glory of being Creator, or pray to someone else.

>>>WHAT? he says "WHY CALLEST THOU ME GOOD? THERE IS NONE GOOD"
>>this is clearly referring to himself; and then "BUT GOD"
>>clearly differentiates between himself and God. IF the
>>person of Jesus was implied in "God" why would he say "WHY
>>CALLEST THOU ME GOOD?"
>
>Response: To check the implicatoin of the one speaking, in
>other words he is asking the man "Do you really understand
>what you are saying to me when you call me this?"

uh, why dont you share the implication. it seems Jesus is stopping them from ascribing Godhood (or equity) to him.