>the personal aspect and usage of "the Word" aside, it's
>basically the exact same passage. It would *really* be a
>stretch to say that John didn't incorporate it into his
>writing.
>

Response: Oh he may have incorporated the pattern of the verse into his writtings, and used it for his own theology. And quirked it in order to make the Logos personal, but I was saying I don't think that John meant the same thing as that verse did.

In John's writtings he is trying to make sure that we know that logos is personal and the light of the world and the Messiah. That is his goal. But alot of Biblical writters incorporate writtings from other places and flip it for there theology.