>Gyro's right - the term "Immaculate Conception" specifically
>refers to the conception of Mary; Jesus' divine conception,
>even if it was immaculately concieved or however you want to
>describe it, is not officially referred to as "the
>Immaculate Conception". So yeah, he was being a pedant, even
>if he spelled it wrong.

In Catholicism, this is true.. but Jesus was immaculately conceived.... i was just using the common terminology.. read it again and tell me where i claimed that catholic doctine of IC had anything to do with Jesus. I'm pretty sure I made a distinction as to what was dotrine and what was not... could've been a typo though... find a quote and post it so i can at least acknowledge whatever mistake i made.