Posted by bluetiger, Wed Jan-24-01 02:20 PM
This isn't my argument to be in, but, HotThyng is correct in his description of why Sodom & Gomorrah were destroyed. The populous of the city rejected the angelic beings/messengers and for that, they faced destruction. If sex or morality were the issue, why was it acceptable for Lot to offer up his virgin daughters unsuervised to a mob of men (previously described as wicked) to do whatever they wanted to with them? Where is the morality in that?
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