>>4. who is the "we" in
>>the book of genesis?
>
>Responce: The we in Genesis 1:26
>is there for grammatical reasons
>because the word used for
>God (Elohim) is a plural
>of majesty. The im makes
>it plural. So since the
>Elohim is deemed plural because
>of grammatics it reads we.

I thought that was the answer as well (and it's probably why, considering the "King James" translation), but with the jumbled history of the sources of Christianity, can we be absolutely sure that this isn't some remnant from some other, more ancient philosophy that the Bible borrowed from?

(Just been doing some reading that questions these kinds of assumptions about the Bible, that's all)




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