>that doesn't make any sense.
>
>"Human beings are finite beings, meaning, our physical
>bodies will eventually die. Also, as finite beings, we are
>incapable of the infinite, yet we can be certain the
>infinite exists by observing a melting a piece of wax. We
>can grasp the concept of the infinite, but we are incapable
>of it's excecution. If you feel otherwise, please state how
>as human beings, we can excecute the infinite. Descartes
>concludes that God is a supreme being capable of the
>infinite"
>
>How can he jump from the conclusion that because we cannot
>"execute the infinite", that there is something that can?
>That isn't logic.

There is no jump. We cannot execute the infinite, yet it clearly does exist, therefore, there is a force that can execute the infinite. Is that not logical?

Peace.