i'm engaging the board in a discussion about a modern interpretation of the Immaculate Conception that questions whether Mary gave meaningful consent to be impregnated by God.

answers rooted in Biblical interpretations that rely on Xtian doctrine aren't relevant to the discussion. however, i understand and accept the answer from that perspective - of course God didn't rape Mary when we read the story from that perspective. but i'm asking about another perspective that doesn't rely on Xtian doctrine.