yes, it's a provocative question - i intended that it be so.

i'm not interested in being educated on Xtian doctrine on the issue b/c i already know it, thanks.

i'm asking if we can see a rape in the conception story when we interpret the story in a modern context that doesn't give the sort of deference that the Biblical interpretation rooted in Xtian doctrine will give. b/c of course in a Biblical interpretation there's no rape since as Tek pointed out God cannot sin and all of that. i knew that when i made the post.