>john 10:30 in english says: "I and the Father are one"
>John.10:30 (egw kai o pathr en esmen)
>
>"I and the Father are one (hen)"
>
>what does this one mean?
>
>in Greek, `heis' means `one' numerically and `hen' means
>`one' in unity or essence
>
>Here the word used by John is `hen' and not `heis'. the New
>American Standard Bible (NASB) reads; one - (Lit.neuter) a
>unity, or, one essence.
>
>if 'hen' implies 'co-equal' in status, then why does Jesus
>say:
>
>Jesus said: "And the glory which You have given me, I have
>given to them (disciples); that they may be One (en) , just
>as we are One (en) ." John 17:22
>
>kagw thn doxan hn dedwkaV moi dedwka autoiV, ina wsin en
>kaqwV hmeiV en
>
>If one was to consider/regard/believe the Father and Jesus
>Christ to be "one" meaning "co-equal" in status on the basis
>of John 10:30, then that person should also be prepared to
>consider/regard/believe "them" - the disciples of Jesus, to
>be "co-equal" in status with the Father and Jesus ("just as
>we are one") in John 17:22.
>
>are the disciples now part of that oneness too?
>
>once again, what implications does "I go to the Father; for
>the Father is greater than I" (John 14:28) have in this
>light? This verse refutes the claim by any one for Jesus
>being "co-equal" in status with his Father.